*Friday CLOSED

Timings 10.00 am - 08.00 pm

Call : 021-3455-6664, 0312-216-9325 DHA 021-35344-600, 03333808376, ISB 03333808376

logo

Free Top 100+ PMP Exam Questions and Answers

Posted by 40 Certification Exams

OMNI ACADEMY Offer PMP® Certification Exam preparation (online/in-campus) classes with above 90% success rate – Based on Latest PMBOK® Guide and PMI Exam Guidance, 35 PDUs course, FREE Mock Test/ practice exam questions to ensure your practice and high success rate. Course covering complete PMP Certification criteria as per Project Management Institute PMI updated guide lines. Take your PMI-RMP Certification Exam from your home or office, 24/7.

The Project Management Professional (PMP) is the world’s leading project management certification. Now including predictive, agile and hybrid approaches, the PMP® proves project leadership experience and expertise in any way of working. It supercharges careers for project leaders across industries and helps organizations find the people they need to work smarter and perform better.

Take the PMP® certification exam at home or in your office, when it fits your schedule. Learn more about the online proctored exam and how to prepare for the current exam.

Below are the free Top 100+ PMP exam questions and answers

Question 1: Correct 

In a weekly meeting with your project’s sponsor, you are informed that a large portion of the scope will  be cut from the project. The work that was to be done was originally going to be provided with a  contractor. The contract has already been signed by your organization and the contractor. What should  you do first? 

  • Review the contract terms with your procurement office.(Correct)
  • Tell the contractor to stop all work.
  • Tell the procurement office not to issue payment to the contractor.
  • Issue payment for the work that has been provided, but not for the work that hasn’t been done  yet. 

Explanation 

While all of these options seem good, none of these are appropriate until you review the contract terms.  Ideally, the contract terms should be reviewed with someone from the procurement office or with a  legal understanding. Depending on the terms, you may be able to tell the contractor to stop work, you  might not need to issue any payment, or you may only need to issue partial payment. However, it is  impossible to know what the options are until the contract is reviewed. 

Question 2: Correct 

Jack is training a new project manager, Charles, on the procurement processes at their firm. Jack informs  Charles that as the project manager, he is expected to participate in the negotiations of a contract.  Charles asks why this is the case when the firm has a centralized procurement office. What should Jack’s  response be? 

  • The project manager always has authority over the contract terms.
  • The project manager should set the price of a contract.
  • The project manager should protect the relationship with the seller.(Correct)
  • The project manager should be present only to introduce the seller to the staff in the procurement  office.

Explanation 

The project manager should participate in the negotiation stage of a contract to protect the relationship  with the seller. The contract must be beneficial for the buyer and the seller to protect the quality of the  project, but also the relationship between the seller and the buyer. The project manager does not always  have authority over the contract terms. This is especially true if the firm has a centralized procurement  office. The project manager cannot always set the price of a contract. Price is one of the key elements that  is often negotiated. The buyer and seller should work together to set a price that is beneficial for both  parties. The project manager will likely connect the seller to the procurement office, but the project manager’s role should be much stronger than this. The project manager should work in the negotiation  stage to maintain a beneficial relationship between the buyer and seller. 

Question 3: Incorrect 

Midway through the negotiation of a contract, your project sponsor asks that a relatively small feature  be added to the scope. How should you proceed? 

  • Email the contractor letting them know that the scope has been changed.(Incorrect)
  • Mention this scope addition in a call with the contractor after the contract has been signed.
  • Issue a new contract that includes this scope change for the vendor to sign.(Correct)
  • Tell the project sponsor that this addition to scope cannot be accommodated.

Explanation 

Because the contract is not yet finalized, this addition to the scope should be included in the contract for  the contractor to sign off on. Simply mentioning it to the contractor in an email is not enough to ensure  that the new scope is added. The expectation should be clearly stated in a contract that has been signed by  both parties. Bringing up the scope in a meeting after the contract is not appropriate. The contractor is not  obligated to perform the work if it is not clearly stated in the contract. Because the contract has not yet  been signed, the project’s scope can be changed and the project sponsor’s request should be  accommodated. 

Question 4: Incorrect 

Which of the following is not a reason to include the project manager in a contract’s negotiation? The project manager represents the best interests of both the buyer and the seller.(Incorrect) 

  • The project manager can prevent future contract changes by responding to bidders’ questions  upfront.
  • The project manager can help vet the sellers’ abilities to successfully deliver the project’s  deliverables.
  • The project manager can write the contract.(Correct)

Explanation 

The project manager should not write the contract between a buyer and a seller. The procurement office  is responsible for writing a contract. The project manager should be present in the negotiation stage to  protect the best interests of both the buyer and the seller. The project manager should also be present to  answer any of the bidders’ questions about the project. This will prevent changes to the contract in the  future if these questions can be addressed initially. The project manager can also attest to a seller’s  suitability and skillset. The project manager should understand all aspects of the project and what sellers  can or cannot perform adequately to meet the project’s goals.

Question 5: Correct 

Janet is responsible for negotiating a high-profile, $20,000,000 project for her agency. She has identified  a contractor and must negotiate the terms. Which of the following is she likely to negotiate first? 

  • Schedule
  • Price
  • Scope (Correct)
  • Risk

Explanation 

The scope should be evaluated and negotiated first. This is because the price, schedule, and risks are  dependent on the scope. Therefore, schedule, price, and risk should be negotiated after the scope. 

Question 6: Incorrect 

Craig is a junior software developer with relatively low influence at your organization. However, Craig is  extraordinarily interested in a web design project that you are managing. In fact, Craig worked on a very  similar project at his previous organization. Craig’s project was fraught with risk, but his team was able  to deliver the project’s deliverables successfully. How would you best manage Craig’s engagement as a  stakeholder? 

  • Ensure that you understand what Craig needs, include him in all team meetings, and ensure he  receives project reports.
  • Train Craig on the technical requirements for the project.
  • Meet with Craig periodically and keep him informed of risk reviews. (Incorrect) Invite Craig to help analyze project risks. (Correct) 

Explanation 

Because Craig has little influence, he should not be included in all team meetings nor receiving all project  reports. Ideally, Craig will be able to provide information on risk analysis. After Craig helps the team analyze  the project list, his involvement with the project should decrease and he should not need to attend periodic  meetings. Craig does not require training as he is very familiar with the technical work. 

Question 7: Incorrect 

Your PMO has asked you to provide a stakeholder engagement plan by the end of the week. What should  you be sure to include in your stakeholder engagement plan? 

  • When communication needs to be shared with stakeholders
  • How communication needs to be shared with stakeholders
  • Why certain information needs to be shared with stakeholders.(Correct)
  • What information needs to be shared with stakeholders.(Incorrect)

Explanation 

The purpose of the stakeholder engagement plan is to express why information needs to be communicated  to certain stakeholders and how that information will manage stakeholders’ expectations and engagement.  When communication is shared, how it is shared, and what information is shared is expressed in the  communications management plan, not the stakeholder engagement plan.

 Question 8: Incorrect 

Your software project is getting a record number of change requests. The development team is beginning  to feel fatigued by constantly changing course. What likely went wrong? 

The developers do not possess the skills required to execute the project. 

  • Stakeholders were not identified or engaged in the planning stages.(Correct)
  • There is a problem in the integrated change control process.(Incorrect)
  • The project manager lacks the authority to successfully manage the project.

Explanation 

While all of these choices are plausible, more than likely some stakeholders were not identified or engaged  in the planning stages of the project. Should stakeholders have been engaged early on, the scope would  have been well defined and the team would not be receiving many change requests. Change requests are  very rarely due to a problem with developers’ skills. Change requests are typically a result of incomplete  scope or functionality that needs to be corrected. While it is possible that there is a problem within the  integrated change control process or that the project manager does not have sufficient authority to manage  the project, the volume of change requests is not tied to the project manager’s authority. 

Question 9: Correct 

Jesse’s project is a multi-national project with hundreds of stakeholders. Of course, there is not enough  time for Jesse to meet with every stakeholder individually. Which stakeholder should Jesse prioritize  meeting with? 

  • An influential stakeholder who is resistant to the project(Correct)
  • The project sponsor who is very supportive of the project
  • The engineers who will be completing the project work
  • A new employee who requires technical training to contribute to the project

Explanation

Jesse should prioritize meeting with the stakeholder who is resistant to the project. This individual  influences the project and should be reassured by Jesse to ensure that the project is successful. Negative  influence has the potential to disrupt a project. Therefore, Jesse should meet with this stakeholder to  prevent any disruption and learn why the stakeholder is resistant, and try to work with them. Because the  project sponsor is already supportive, there is no need to invest much time in meeting with this stakeholder.  While the work of the engineers and employees is critical, Jesse will not have time to meet with all  stakeholders with little influence. 

Question 10: Correct 

Theresa is facilitating a meeting with four developers. The goal of the meeting is to reach a consensus  regarding a technical path for delivering a new software feature. Which of the following not a result of  consensus? 

  • All four developers agree on one technical path.
  • Three developers agree on one technical path and the fourth does not support the decision but is  willing to accept the decision.
  • The team cannot agree, so the project manager must decide for the team.(Correct)
  • Two developers support one option while the other two support another. One group is willing to  try the other group’s suggestion. 

Explanation 

Without agreement and willingness to support a decision, there is no consensus. Therefore, the team not  reaching an agreement, and having the project manager decide for them is not consensus. All in agreement  or all willing to at least support a decision is an example of consensus. The group of two being willing to try  out the other group’s suggestion is an example of consensus. 

Question 11: Correct 

What is the primary goal of facilitation? 

  • Guiding the group towards a shared and successful solution.(Correct)
  • Recording meeting minutes for future reference.
  • Ensuring that all attendees can attend the meeting as scheduled.
  • Making sure that everyone speaks at least once.

Explanation 

The primary goal of facilitation is ensuring that the group reaches a solution or decision. While ensuring  that everyone can participate is helpful, the purpose of doing this is to ensure that a decision is made and  everyone is aware of the decision. Recording meeting minutes and having everyone in attendance is helpful,  however, this is not the objective of facilitation.

Question 12: Incorrect 

Nathan, an experienced software developer, has been asked to step in and facilitate a meeting for the  project manager who is out sick. Which of the following is not expected of Nathan as the facilitator? 

  • Helping the group reach consensus around a decision
  • Ensuring that there is effective participation across team members (Incorrect)
  • Allowing all, even critical, contributions to be heard
  • Providing technical knowledge to inform decisions (Correct) 

Explanation 

The facilitator is responsible for helping the group reach consensus around a decision, maintaining effective  participation across team members, and allowing all contributions to be heard–including negative or critical  feedback. The facilitator is not responsible for technical contributions. While Nathan is a software  developer, the facilitator is not expected to have technical knowledge. 

Question 13: Incorrect 

Larissa is managing a project that is over budget and has exceeded the schedule. Stakeholders are very  unhappy and team morale is low. Which of the following options is the least likely to have contributed  to this? 

  • Unclear project objectives(Incorrect)
  • Conflicting stakeholder needs
  • Not gathering all stakeholder requirements
  • Interpersonal conflict within the project team (Correct) 

Explanation 

While all of these options can cause severe issues for a project, interpersonal conflict within the team is the  least likely to be the main cause. In fact, interpersonal conflict within the team is likely a result of the other  options: unclear project objectives, conflicting stakeholder needs, and missing stakeholder requirements.  These issues can all result in tension within the team and project strain. 

Question 14: Correct 

Liza is the project manager responsible for the success of a five-phased project. The project is mid-way  through the third phase when she realizes that two major requirements compete with one another. What  is should Liza use to help evaluate what requirement is best for her project? 

  • The requirement that will generate the most ROI
  • The requirement that is stipulated from a stakeholder with more experience
  • The requirement that will shorten the schedule
  • The requirement that is most aligned to the project’s business case(Correct) 

Explanation 

Liza should work with the requirement that is most aligned to the business case. The requirement that will  generate the most ROI, the requirement that will shorten the schedule, and the requirement coming from  the stakeholder with more experience all have the potential to be unrelated to the project’s rationale. The  requirement that is most aligned to the project’s business case is the requirement that is most closely  related to the project’s rationale. 

Question 15: Incorrect 

Mikayla is a project manager with many years of experience in the construction industry. After moving  into the software development industry, she is responsible for managing her first lean, agile project.  What might she want to ensure her project team understands in a lean, agile project more so than in a  traditional, waterfall project when planning for potential problems? 

  • The definition of the problem
  • The triggers and signals of an upcoming problem(Correct)
  • The roles of those involved in the problem
  • The strategy for addressing the problem(Incorrect)

Explanation 

Because agile projects are adaptive, it is more critical to be aware of triggers and signals of an upcoming  problem. In agile projects, the scope is not defined for the entire project upfront, meaning the team will  need to have a shared understanding of what potential problems may arise and how to get ahead of them.  While understanding the definition of the problem, the roles of those involved in the problem, and the  strategy for addressing the problem are all critical in any project, these are done similarly across agile  projects and waterfall projects. Because waterfall projects involve more scope definition upfront, the  triggers and signals of an upcoming project can be better anticipated in a waterfall project than in an agile  project. Therefore, in an agile project, the team should have a greater shared understanding of what they  may look for to catch an upcoming problem. 

Question 16: Incorrect 

You’re responsible for training a new junior project manager at your firm. They ask you what to expect  when managing a virtual team rather than a collocated team. Which of the following would you not  mention to the junior project manager? 

  • Virtual teams can have communication issues due to differences in schedules.
  • Virtual teams can have communication issues due to different cultures.
  • Virtual teams are often more expensive than collocated teams.(Correct)
  • Virtual teams can be challenging to manage due to differences in languages.(Incorrect)

Explanation 

Virtual teams are not necessarily more expensive than collocated teams. Managing a virtual team is difficult  and presents communication challenges due to differences in cultures, languages, and schedules. However,  one cannot assume that a virtual team is more or less expensive than a collocated team. 

Question 17: Correct 

Which of the following is not an example of a virtual team? 

  • A team of software developers that are located in the United States and Poland A team of publishers that are located in Houston and Dallas
  • A remote team of marketing agents in New York City
  • A team of telemarketers who work in an office in Delhi (Correct) 

Explanation 

A virtual team represents a team that is not collocated. A virtual team can be comprised of team members  in the same city. However, if the team members are not in the same space, they are a virtual team. The  telemarketers in Delhi represent a virtual team. These team members work in the same office space. All  other choices represent teams that do not share the same workspace. 

Question 18: Correct 

What is the best communication tool to engage a virtual team? 

  • A team blog that all team members can contribute to that contains team information Instant messaging team members daily
  • Hosting teleconference meetings(Correct)
  • Emailing important notices

Explanation 

The most engaging method of communication for a virtual team is teleconferencing. This allows team  members to speak in real-time and, actually hear, and in some cases see, their teammates. A team blog  and emailing do not allow for real-time communication. While instant messaging is great for quick  responses, it is still not always real-time and doesn’t allow for the personalization that a teleconference  would provide. 

Question 19: Correct 

In which situation is a virtual team necessary for a project? 

  • An American company is manufacturing products that will be sold in Asia.
  • A niche software development project by a Spanish team requires specific development by a full time developer in Croatia.(Correct)
  • A Mexican manufacturing plant is purchasing raw materials from Brazil.
  • A multinational corporation is sponsoring a project with all stakeholders in the office  headquarters.

Explanation 

A virtual team has team members spread apart, not sharing a workspace. The developer being located in  Croatia while the other team members are located in Spain means this team is a virtual team. The American  company selling products in Asia does not imply that there is a virtual team just because their market is in  another country. A Mexican manufacturing plant purchasing raw materials from Brazil is also not an  example of a virtual team because the Brazilian material provider is not a project team member. The  multinational corporation’s project is contained in the office headquarters, meaning the team members  are collocated. Therefore, this is not a virtual team. 

Question 20: Correct 

What is a potential benefit of a virtual team? 

Virtual teams are less expensive than collocated teams. 

Virtual teams broaden market reach. 

Virtual teams make expertise from other locations available.(Correct) 

Virtual teams give most organizations a tax break. 

Explanation 

The primary benefit of a virtual team is making expertise more widely available. Through virtual teams,  organizations can access the best expertise in the world. Virtual teams are not inherently more or less  expensive than collocated teams, nor do they broaden market research nor provide a tax break. 

Question 21: Incorrect 

You are having lunch with Martha, another project manager at your firm, when she mentions her team’s  charter. She asks what the process is for altering a team charter. What will you tell her? 

Altering the team charter requires an approved change request in the integrated change control  process.(Incorrect) 

The team charter cannot be altered once the project has begun. 

The team charter can only be altered by the project manager when the project is underway. The team charter can be altered by any team member at any time.(Correct)

Page 9 of 39 PMP Practice Exam Questions 

Explanation 

The team charter is a working document that the entire project team owns and can alter at any point in  time. Making a change to the team charter does not require a change request in the integrated change  control process. The integrated change control process is typically used for adjusting project management  plans that include baselines such as the cost baseline. The team charter should be owned and maintained  by the entire team and can be altered at any point. 

Question 22: Correct 

What is the main purpose of team ground rules? 

  • Supervisors know what to refer to when reprimanding their direct reports.
  • The ground rules ensure that no one is late to meetings.
  • The ground rules ensure that the project does not exceed the budget.
  • The ground rules make the team aware of what is expected of them.(Correct)

Explanation 

Team ground rules make the expectations of team members very clear. With clear ground rules in place,  team members know what is expected of them. While supervisors may bring up a violation of the team  rules, this is not the primary purpose of the team ground rules. Stipulating team ground rules does not  ensure that they will be enforced. Team members may still violate these ground rules. Team ground rules  are typically used to eliminate conflicts within the team and are not used to control the budget. 

Question 23: Correct 

You are a Project Manager responsible for the success of a $6,000,000 project. Your team’s technical lead  identifies a potential risk in one step of the production workflow that has a low probability but high  impact. What would be an example of risk mitigation? 

  • Cancel this step of the production workflow and proceed along with the project without this work.
  • Discuss risk triggers with the team and strategize to develop a workaround should this issue  present itself.(Correct) 
  • Outsource this step of the production workflow to a contracted group.
  • Do nothing as the probability of this occurrence is low.

Explanation 

To mitigate the risk, you should address risk triggers with the team. Risk mitigation means that you try to  get ahead of the risk, not avoid it, accept it, nor transfer it. Canceling this step of the workflow would avoid  the risk, not mitigate it. Outsourcing this step of the workflow would be transferring the risk, not mitigating  it. Doing nothing would be accepting the risk, not mitigating it.

Question 24: Incorrect 

You are responsible for prioritizing project risks. The risks should be prioritized so that they correspond  to their expected monetary value where the risk with the highest expected monetary value is the highest  priority. Which risk is the lowest priority? 

  • A risk with a 25% probability of costing the organization $100,000(Correct) 
  • A risk with a 30% probability of costing the organization $109,000(Incorrect) 
  • A risk with a 10% probability of costing the organization $700,000
  • A risk with a 2% probability of costing the organization $3,000,000

Explanation 

The expected monetary value is calculated by multiplying the probability times the impact. The option with  a 25% probability has an expected monetary value of $25,000. The option with a 30% chance of occurring  has an expected monetary value of $32,700. The risk with 10% of happening has an expected monetary  value of $70,000. The risk with a 2% chance of happening has an expected monetary value of $60,000.  Therefore, the risk with a 10% chance of happening should be the highest priority due to the highest  expected monetary value. 

Question 25: Incorrect 

In a team meeting, an engineer points out that the price of leasing a required server is on sale if an  agreement is signed within the month. If the team decides to go ahead and sign an agreement to lease  the server within the month, what kind of risk response strategy is this? 

  • Exploiting(Correct)
  • Sharing
  • Enhancing(Incorrect)
  • Mitigating

Explanation 

This is an example of exploiting a positive risk. Exploiting means action is taken to ensure that the positive  risk will happen. Enhancing a positive risk is similar, but the result is not as definite, such as a discount if  100 people enroll for a seminar and you currently have 95. With just five more people you’ll get the  discount, so you send an email out trying to recruit five more people. Sharing means you’ll share the risk  with another entity, such as partnering on a venture that’s too big for your organization to take on its own.  Mitigating is for negative risks, and it aims to reduce the probability and/or impact of the risk.

Question 26: Correct 

Sharon is planning her resource distribution for a medical software development project. She considers  putting Robert on the project but has recently heard that Robert is incredibly disruptive and bad for team  morale. Sharon decides to proceed with the project plans without Robert as a team member as she wants  to ensure that her project is successful. What kind of risk response strategy is this? 

  • Transfer
  • Mitigate
  • Avoid(Correct)
  • Accept

Explanation 

This is an example of risk avoidance. By not putting Robert on the team, Sharon has avoided the risk of  having Robert be disruptive to her project. This is not an example of transferring the risk, because she has  not moved the risk anywhere, she has simply avoided it. This is not an example of risk mitigation, because  no actions were taken to lessen the probability of the risk; it was avoided altogether. This is not an example  of acceptance because Sharon has decided to proceed without Robert, not include him in her team. 

Question 27: Incorrect 

Your project sponsor has asked that you send him a list of secondary risks for your project. What will you  send him? 

  • A list of risks that are created by the implementation of enacted risk responses(Correct)
  • A list of warning signs of a risk’s occurrence
  • A list of actions that will be performed if the initial risk responses do not work
  • A list of risks that remain after the team has planned risk responses(Incorrect)

Explanation 

Secondary risks are risks that are created by the implementation of enacted risk responses; this is what  should be sent to the project sponsor. A list of warning signs of a risk’s occurrence is a risk trigger, not a  secondary risk. An action that will be performed if the initial risk response does not work is a fallback plan,  not a secondary risk. A risk that remains after a team has planned risk responses is a residual risk, not a  secondary risk.

Question 28: Incorrect 

Elsie is a junior Project Manager at your firm and you are responsible for training her on risk management  and monitoring policies. She asks what should result from risk monitoring. What will you not tell her to  expect as a result of risk monitoring? 

  • Changes to the business case (Correct)
  • Updates to the risk register
  • Changes to the risk management plan
  • Budget change requests(Incorrect) 

Explanation 

The business case would not change as a result of risk monitoring. The business case is established before  the project begins, therefore cannot be changed during the project. Updates to the risk register, risk  management plan, and budget change requests are expected results from risk monitoring. 

Question 29: Correct 

Rocky is a senior architect at your firm. You’re consulting with Rocky because he was the original architect  for a building that your project will renovate. Your project team is made up of designers and building  construction workers. What kind of stakes does Rocky have in this project? 

  • Ownership
  • Knowledge (Correct)
  • Rights
  • Contribution

Explanation 

Rocky has knowledge stakes in this project. As the original architect of the building, he understands the  building’s composition. He does not have ownership, because he is not the owner of the building. Rocky  also does not have rights as a stake in this project. Rocky is not being asked to contribute to the renovation,  so he does not have contribution stakes in this project. 

Question 30: Correct 

What is the purpose of managing stakeholders’ activity? 

  • Meet the requirements of as many stakeholders as possible.
  • Enact the stakeholders’ requirements that will make the most money for the organization.
  • Keep stakeholders’ expectations in check. (Correct) 

Explanation 

The purpose of managing stakeholders is to keep their expectations in check. Not every stakeholders’  requirements will be feasible nor necessary for the project. Therefore, it not appropriate to meet as many  requirements as possible; many of these requirements may be conflicting. The same is true of trying to  make the most money for the organization. While that may be a project’s goal, that is not the goal or  purpose of managing stakeholders. Managing stakeholders takes place in the executing stage of a project.  The requirements should have been gathered from the stakeholders before the executing stage. 

Question 31: Correct 

Lucia needs to look up how Joe, a key stakeholder, prefers to be communicated with. Where would Lucia  find this information? 

  • Resource management plan
  • Stakeholder register
  • Stakeholder engagement plan(Correct)
  • Project charter

Explanation 

This information can be found in the stakeholder engagement plan. While it is tempting to select the  stakeholder register, this isn’t the best answer because the stakeholder register only contains details about  the identified stakeholders to help understand the knowledge they may have, while the stakeholder  engagement plan is used to understand stakeholder communication requirements and the level of  stakeholder engagement in order to assess and adapt to the level of stakeholder participation in  requirements activities.

Question 32: Incorrect 

Your project’s sponsor has asked that you report any indirect costs to the PMO. Which of the following  is an example of an indirect cost? 

  • Salaries for engineers on your project’s team (Incorrect) 
  • Wood required for construction
  • Bill for the pizza that you ordered for a project team party
  • Cost of the internet for the office (Correct) 

Explanation 

Indirect costs are costs that are incurred for more than one project or an organization’s overhead.  Therefore, the internet for the office is an example of an indirect cost. Every other option, the salaries for  the team members, the wood for the project, the pizza for the project team’s celebration, are all examples  of direct costs as they are strictly for your project. 

Question 33: Incorrect 

David’s project team has been planning a project for about 2 weeks. They have a thorough understanding  of the scope and expectations. David asks the team to provide a cost estimate range that is very refined  after several rounds of discussion. What should the team provide to David? 

  • Rough order of magnitude estimate
  • Three-point estimate
  • Budget estimate (Incorrect) 
  • Definitive estimate (Correct)

Explanation 

The team should provide David with a definitive estimate. A definitive estimate is typically within +/-10%  and is the most accurate estimate range. A rough order of magnitude is the least accurate estimate range.  This choice is incorrect because a rough order of magnitude is usually estimated in the initiation stage and  is not refined. The budget estimate is also not very refined. The budget estimate is usually around -10 to  +25% and is a slightly more refined estimate from the rough order of magnitude. A three-point estimate is  not a budget range. A three-point estimate is an average of the optimistic, likely, and pessimistic cost  associated with an item. 

Question 34: Incorrect 

A developer on your team has pointed out a problem with the server that your project relies on to deliver  code. The server will have to be replaced. This was not foreseen in the planning stages. What should be  done about the cost of the new server? 

  • The new server should be paid for out of the contingency reserve.(Incorrect)
  • The new server should be paid for out of the management reserve.(Correct)
  • The team will have to find a workaround as they cannot purchase a new server.
  • The project will have to be canceled as a new server cannot be purchased.

Explanation 

The new server should be paid for out of the management reserve. The management reserve covers the  cost of unforeseen issues. This new server should not be charged to the contingency reserve because this  was an unforeseen issue that the team did not account for. The team does not need to develop a  workaround nor should the project be canceled. This kind of situation is addressed by a management  reserve to keep the project going on track. 

Question 35: Incorrect 

In monitoring your project, you’re reviewing your project’s budget report. The report informs you that  your project has a CPI of 1.2. What does this mean? 

  • Your project is ahead of schedule. (Incorrect) 
  • Your project is behind schedule.
  • Your project is under budget. (Correct) 
  • Your project is over budget.

Explanation 

The CPI of 1.2 tells you that your project is under budget. This is not SPI so any choices relating to the  schedule are incorrect. A CPI over 1 means that the project is under budget. A CPI under 1 means that the  project is running over budget. 

Question 36: Correct 

Your project has a CPI of 1.3 and the SPI is 0.5. How should you proceed? 

  • Do nothing as your project is currently under budget and ahead of schedule.
  • Suggest that additional labor is hired to speed up delivery.(Correct) 
  • Remove contracted labor as you are over budget.
  • Give the team some time off because you are ahead of schedule.

Explanation 

You should suggest that additional labor is hired. Your project is under budget (CPI > 1) so you could use  additional funds to pay for labor to speed up the project which is behind schedule (SPI < 1). You should not  do nothing because your project is significantly behind schedule as is indicated by the SPI that is less than  1. You should not remove labor because you are behind schedule and need to catch up. Additionally, you are under budget, so you do not need to save money here. You should not give the team time off because
you are behind schedule. 

Question 37: Incorrect 

In estimating durations with your project team, you must calculate the expected duration with a beta  distribution. Your senior technical architect tells you that more than likely, the activity will take 8 days.  He is hopeful that he can get it done in 6, however worst-case scenario, it is done in 14 days. What is the  beta distribution estimate for this work? 

  • 9.33 days(Incorrect) 
  • 8.66 days(Correct) 
  • 28 days
  • 8 days

Explanation 

This beta distributed estimated duration is 8.66 days. The beta distribution is calculated by multiplying the  most likely case by 4 (4 * 8) then adding the optimistic and pessimistic estimates (6 days and 14 days) then  dividing that sum by 6. 

Question 38: Correct 

If a task requires waiting until its predecessor is complete before it can be started, it is said that the task  has: 

  • Lead
  • Lag(Correct) 
  • Free float
  • Project float

Explanation 

A task that must wait for its predecessor to complete before it can be started has lag. There is no lead here  because lead implies that a task can begin without waiting for its predecessor to finish. We cannot say if  there is evidence of float here without knowing the specific duration of the tasks in the network diagram  and understanding how they relate to one another. 

Question 39: Incorrect 

Carrie is reviewing her project’s network diagram and she comes across a task that can be delayed 3 days  without impacting the delivery milestone date. This task is said to have: 

  • Total float (Correct)
  • Free float (Incorrect)
  • Project float
  • Lead

Explanation 

This task has total float. Total float refers to a task that has room to be delayed without impacting the target  completion date of the project or milestone. This is not free float because free float refers to a delay  between two tasks. This example specifically references the milestone delivery date, not a task. The same  is the case for the project float. Project float refers to how much a task can be delayed before impacting  the customer. Because the example references a milestone date, this would not necessarily impact the  customer. This is not an example of lead, because we do not know if this task can start without the  completion of the task before it. 

Question 40: Incorrect 

Nikki is evaluating the network diagram and comparing this to the project schedule and milestone plans.  She is worried about falling behind schedule, so she decides to bring on some extra staff to ensure that  the project is not late. This is an example of: 

  • Resource leveling
  • Resource smoothing
  • Fast-tracking (Incorrect)
  • Crashing (Correct) 

Explanation 

This is an example of crashing. Crashing refers to adding or resources to compress the schedule. This is not  an example of fast-tracking because fast-tracking means that tasks are done in parallel. This is not an  example of resource smoothing or leveling because resource leveling or smoothing reduces the time that  a resource is on a project. 

Question 41: Correct 

In managing a software development project, you realize that your project is slipping behind schedule.  You do not have many funds left in the budget, but some of the activities in the schedule can be done in  differing orders. What is the best option for getting this project back on schedule? 

  • The project cannot get back on schedule without extra funding for hiring.
  • Cut scope out of the project.
  • Fast track some of the activities. (Correct)
  • Page 18 of 39 PMP Practice Exam Questions
  • Hire more software developers.

Explanation 

You should fast track some of the activities. Because funds are low, you cannot hire more developers. You  should not cut scope out of the project when you could easily mitigate the problem by fast-tracking some  of the activities. The project can be brought back on schedule if activities are fast-tracked. 

Question 42: Correct 

Natasha is reviewing quality reports for her manufacturing project. Upon studying the reports, she begins  to question the validity and accuracy of these reports. What should Natasha do next? 

  • Perform a quality audit. (Correct) 
  • Submit a change request.
  • Train the project team in quality principles.
  • Revise quality metrics.

Explanation 

Natasha should perform a quality audit. In the future, she may need to submit a change request, train the  team in quality principles, or revise quality metrics. However, she cannot determine what needs to be done  until she conducts a quality audit. 

Question 43: Incorrect 

The head of your PMO has asked you to alert them to any cost of nonconformance. Which of the  following would you need to report? 

  • You provide training to the entire manufacturing team to ensure quality standards are met,  totaling about $200 per staff member. (Incorrect)
  • You spend $400 to circulate a survey to customers to measure satisfaction.
  • A customer voids a $100 purchase order and decides to do business with a competitor. (Correct) 
  • Your firm hires a team of researchers for $20,000 to evaluate areas of the organization that can  be improved.

Explanation 

The voiding of a purchase order by a customer is an example of a cost of nonconformance.  Nonconformance costs include the cost of lost business as is the case here. Training, studies, and customer  satisfaction are all examples of the cost of conformance. 

Question 44: Correct 

Phoebe, your project sponsor, has asked you to relate the project requirements and activities to the  project’s strategic objectives. What could you send Phoebe that contains this information?

  • Scope statement
  • Requirements traceability matrix (Correct) 
  • Context diagram
  • Mind map

Explanation 

The requirements traceability matrix will contain information that relates to project requirements and  strategic objectives. While helpful, a context diagram does not relate the project requirements to the  strategic objectives; it simply defines the scope. Similar to the purpose of a context diagram, a mind map is  useful to collect requirements but does not necessarily relate them to strategic objectives. A project’s scope  statement will not necessarily explicitly state the relationship between a project’s requirements and the  strategic objective; it will simply state the scope.

 Question 45: Incorrect 

Curtis is an intern shadowing you at your consulting firm. You are reviewing project management  processes and practices with him when he asks you who should validate the scope of a project. What will  you tell Curtis? 

  • The project manager must validate the scope. (Incorrect) 
  • The customer must validate the scope.
  • The head of the PMO must validate the scope.
  • Either the customer or project sponsor can validate the scope. (Correct) 

Explanation 

Only the customer or project sponsor can validate the scope of a project. Scope validation is when the  customer or project sponsor formally accepts the deliverables of a project. Neither the project manager  nor PMO can formally accept the project deliverables as this must always be done by the customer or  project sponsor. 

Question 46: Correct 

The head of your quality assurance department, Stephanie, has just inspected a prototype of a work  package ahead of meeting with the customer. Stephanie has informed you that the prototype looks good,  and she expects the customer to be pleased. At this point: 

  • The prototype is a verified deliverable.(Correct)
  • The prototype is a validated deliverable.
  • The project is complete as soon as the prototype is given to the customer.
  • Page 20 of 39 PMP Practice Exam Questions
  • No more change requests can be received.

Explanation 

At this point, the prototype is a verified deliverable. A verified deliverable is a deliverable that has been  completed before meeting with a customer. This is not a validated deliverable, because it has not yet been  accepted by the customer. The project will not be complete when the prototype is delivered to the  customer, because several other processes need to take place (IE: archiving documents) before a project  can be closed. Change requests could also still be received at this point. This is especially true if the  customer is not pleased with the deliverable. Change requests can happen at any point in the project before  a deliverable has been validated by the customer.

 Question 47: Incorrect 

You are onboarding a new project manager to your software development firm. You are explaining how  the teams decompose their work into user stories. Which of the following is an example of a user story? 

  • Notes from a meeting with the project sponsor that contains project requirements.
  • An issue noted in the project’s issue log that needs to be resolved.
  • A work ticket stating “As a software user, I want this button to be clickable so that I can access the  webpage.” (Correct) 
  • An entry in the WBS dictionary containing all information for one work package.(Incorrect) 

Explanation 

A user story is a short description of a feature told from the perspective of the user. Therefore, a work ticket  stating “As a software user, I want this button to be clickable so that I can access the webpage,” is an  example of a user story. Notes from a meeting do not qualify as a user story. An issue in the issue log is also  not an example of a user story as it is not a request from the user. An entry in the WBS dictionary is not an  example of a user story because it is also not written from the perspective of the user. 

Question 48: Incorrect 

In the middle of planning, Evan, a software engineer asks what the purpose of a WBS is after planning is  over. All of the following statements about a WBS are true except: 

  • A WBS helps control scope creep. (Incorrect)
  • A WBS helps define team members’ roles.
  • A WBS determines if change requests should be approved or rejected.(Correct)
  • A WBS can be used as a communication tool to discuss the project.

Explanation 

A WBS does not determine if a change request should be approved or rejected. While a WBS serves to help  evaluate the effects of a change request, it does not relegate what should be approved or rejected. A WBS does help control scope creep, define team members’ roles, and serve as a communication tool to discuss  the project. 

Question 49: Correct 

Kendra is starting to begin her project planning. She has determined that her project will have a  traditional, predictive life cycle. Additionally, her sponsor and several key stakeholders have provided  her with clear, prioritized requirements. What should Kendra do next? 

  • Develop a schedule.
  • Create an activity list.
  • Create a project scope statement. (Correct)
  • Develop a project charter.

Explanation 

Kendra should create a project scope statement. After the development approach has been determined  and requirements have been provided, a project scope statement should be created. From here, the project  scope statement will inform the development of a schedule and an activity list. Note that Kendra is ready  to begin planning. Therefore, the project charter should already be developed. 

Question 50: Correct 

In a seminar at your local PMI chapter’s meeting, the topic of integration comes up. Which of the  following statements about project integration is true? 

  • Integration is done in all project management process groups except for closing.
  • Integration is done in all project management process groups except for initiating.
  • Integration is done in all project management process groups. (Correct) 
  • Integration is done only in planning, executing, and monitoring and controlling process groups.

Explanation 

Integration is done in all project management process groups; it is the only knowledge area that spans all  process groups. All other statements are false. 

Question 51: Incorrect 

Your PMO has presented you with a project, Project A, that has a present value of $1.2M. You must  decide if this project will be more valuable than an existing project, Project Z, with a future value of  $1.4M and an interest rate of 10% over 2 years. Which project is more valuable? 

  • Project A is more valuable as it has a higher present value. (Correct) 
  • Project Z is more valuable as it has a higher present value.
  • Page 22 of 39 PMP Practice Exam Questions
  • Project A is more valuable as it has a higher internal rate of return.
  • Project Z is more valuable as it has a higher internal rate of return.(Incorrect)

Explanation 

Project A has a higher present value. The present value is calculated by first adding 1 to the interest rate (r)  and then exponentially multiplying this value by the number of time periods (n) – [PV=FV/(1 + r)^n]. For  Project Z, this gives us (1.10)^2, which is 1.21. Next, divide 1.4M by 1.21 which gives you a present value of  about $1.15M. Therefore, Project A has a higher present value. There is not enough information in this  example to calculate the internal rate of return. 

Question 52: Correct 

At the start of your project’s execution, you identify an opportunity to lower the interest rate for your  project. Initially, the project had a future value of $4M with an interest rate of 8% over 2 years. You were  able to negotiate the interest rate down to 5%. What is the effect on the present value of your project? 

  • The present value has decreased by $199,000.
  • The present value has increased by $199,000. (Correct) 
  • The present value has increased by $3,800,000.
  • The present value has increased by $3,200,000.

Explanation 

The present value has increased by $199,000 based on the calculations for present value. The present value  is calculated by adding the interest rate to 1 and then exponentially multiplying this by the number of time  periods. From here, the future value should be divided by this amount. Initially, the present value would  have been about $3.429M. With the new interest rate, the present value is now about $3.629M. Therefore,  the present value has increased by about $199,000.

 Question 53: Incorrect 

Mathew’s PMO is looking to be more granular in their project selection method and move to a more  mathematical approach to evaluate projects. Which project management method will be most successful  for Mathew’s PMO? 

  • Peer review
  • Scoring models(Incorrect) 
  • Murder board
  • Dynamic programming (Correct) 

Explanation

The only example of a mathematical evaluation approach is dynamic programming. This is a quantitative  evaluation approach. Peer review, scoring models, and a murder board are all examples of qualitative  comparative approaches. Dynamic programming is the only option that utilizes a formulaic approach to  evaluate projects. 

Question 54: Correct 

You are presenting drafted project management plans to your supervisor. Your supervisor tells you to  “beware of the law of diminishing returns,”. What is your supervisor warning you about? 

  • The more time you spend on a project, the less valuable it becomes.
  • The same amount of depreciation is taken out every year.
  • After a certain point, adding more resources will not yield a proportional increase in productivity. (Correct) 
  • After you have spent the estimated project budget, the project loses value.

Explanation 

The law of diminishing returns is a law that states that after a certain point, adding more resources will not  yield a proportional increase in productivity. This is true of all projects. Project value concerning elapsed  time or budget varies on a project by project basis. The law of diminishing returns has nothing to do with  depreciation values. 

Question 55: Correct 

Midway through a software development project, a programmer approaches you and lets you know that  she has found an alternate method of performing a task that will save the project and company a great  deal of money. What should you, the project manager, do next? 

  • Revisit this idea is the project retrospective to implement this for future projects. Do nothing as the project budget has already been finalized.
  • Evaluate this alternate method and submit a change request. (Correct) 
  • Implement the change to the method of performing a task since it will save money.

Explanation 

The project manager should always evaluate any suggested changes for project impacts. Once these  impacts are assessed, the project manager should submit a change request. The project manager should  not wait until the project retrospective to discuss this because then the project would not benefit from  potential savings. The project budget can be altered through a change request, therefore, the project  manager should not do anything. The project manager should not implement this proposed change until a  change request has been submitted and approved. 

Question 56: Correct

Page 24 of 39 PMP Practice Exam Questions 

Tracey’s project is underway and on track towards a successful completion after 6 months of progress.  There is one critical project constraint that stipulates that Tracey must purchase resources from a  preferred vendor, Diaz Lumber. Tracey is in the negotiation stage with Diaz Lumber when she is informed  that there will be an unexpected 3-week delay in acquiring the necessary resources. This will impact  Tracey’s planned schedule. What should Tracey do next? 

  • Submit a change request after assessing the impacts on the project.(Correct) 
  • Look for a new vendor to provide the necessary resources.
  • Continue to work as planned as there is nothing that can be done.
  • Tell the customer that the project will be delivered 3 weeks after originally planned.

Explanation 

Tracey must submit a change request to alter the project baselines. She should not look for a new vendor  to do business with, because she has been instructed to do business with Diaz Lumber as a project  constraint. She should not proceed without submitting the change request. Tracey should alert the  customer to any changes in the project’s completion, but she should first submit a change request. 

Question 57: Incorrect 

Your PMO has asked you to send them a document that outlines how changes will be managed and  controlled. What will you send them? 

  • Change control system (Incorrect)
  • Configuration management plan
  • Change management plan(Correct)
  • Requirements management plan

Explanation 

You will send them a change management plan. A change management plan outlines how changes will be  managed and controlled. A change control system may be specified within a change management plan, but  it is not a document that contains information about how changes will be managed and controlled. A  requirements management plan specifies how requirements, not changes, will be managed and controlled.  A configuration management plan outlines naming conventions and version control systems and  conventions for documentation, not change management. 

Question 58: Correct 

Which of the following represents a compliance risk? 

  • A strike near the Panama Canal threatens a project’s on-time delivery.
  •  A software developer does not enable two-factor authentication in a database containing  customers’ financial data. (Correct) 
  • A rare material required for manufacturing may not be available in the quantity needed. A key technical contributor left the company for another job.

Explanation 

Every example here is an example of a risk, however, only the lack of two-factor authentication is an  example of compliance risk. This is a compliance risk because of the lack of extra security, two-factor  authentication. This is a legal risk when handling customer data. All other examples here are general project  risks, not compliance risks. 

Question 59: Correct 

Luke is 8 weeks into a 12-week project. The team is meeting all of its goals and morale is high. Luke’s firm  is stressing the importance of compliance. What should Luke be focusing on for compliance in his project? 

  • Defining processes and policies for his team.
  • Establishing a communications plan and policy for all stakeholders.
  • Monitor and control the existing processes and procedures.(Correct) 
  • Define software usage procedures for team members.

Explanation 

Note that Luke’s project is already underway. At this point, Luke should be monitoring and controlling  processes and procedures. Every other task like defining processes and policies, establishing a  communications plan, and defining procedures should have been done in the planning stage of the project. 

Question 60: Incorrect 

Rodrigo, a Senior Project Manager in your PMO, has asked you to send him a list of all regulations you  must be in compliance with for your project. Which of the following would be included in this list?

  • Updates to the risk register should be submitted before 12 pm on Thursdays. (Incorrect)
  • A building permit must be attained from the city hall before any construction can begin.(Correct)
  • A project charter must be signed by the project sponsor and COO.
  • A 10% gratuity should be provided to contractors when deliveries are completed ahead of  schedule. 

Explanation 

The only example of a regulation is that of attaining a building permit from the city hall. This must be done to legally comply with the city. Updating a risk register by a certain time, signature authority for a project charter, and gratuity stipulations are all examples of policies within an organization. These policies are not  regulations that must be complied with in order to avoid legal action. 

Question 61: Correct 

Your project sponsor has asked you to deliver the benefits management plan. Which of the following will  not be included in the benefits management plan? 

  • Intangible benefits that a project should achieve
  • A plan for how benefits will be sustained
  • Metrics for measuring success
  • Justification for a project(Correct) 

Explanation 

A benefits management plan would not include a project’s justification. Justification for a project is included  in the business case, not the benefits management plan. Intangible project benefits, a plan for sustaining  benefits, and metrics to measure a project’s success are all included in the benefits management plan. 

Question 62: Correct 

Kate’s project sponsor has asked her to deliver project value as quickly as possible. She is to begin  planning early next week. How should Kate deliver value, quickly? 

  • Manage the project with an incremental development life cycle. (Correct) 
  • Manage the project with waterfall development.
  • Ask her team to work overtime to develop a prototype.
  • Contract out some development to bring in the schedule. 

Explanation 

Kate should manage the project with an incremental development life cycle. This allows for the product to  be useable earlier on. A waterfall development will take development much longer and prevent the value  from being delivered early. Asking her team to work overtime to develop a prototype, or contracting out  development, are not necessary yet as the project has not yet entered the planning stages. 

Question 63: Incorrect 

John’s project has a schedule variance of $63,000. The planned value for his project at the 6-month  milestone is $100,000. The project has a CPI of 0.7. What is the earned value of John’s project so far? 

  • $163,000(Correct)
  • $36,000
  • $70,000
  • $44,100(Incorrect)
  • Explanation

Explanation

The earned value can be calculated by adding the schedule variance and planned value, yielding $163,000. 

Question 64: Incorrect 

You have been instructed to deliver your project’s value as early as possible. Going over the allotted  budget is acceptable, so long as the value is delivered as soon as possible. What metric will help you  determine if you are on track to delivering value early? 

  • SPI (Correct) 
  • CPI (Incorrect) 
  • BAC
  • EAC

Explanation 

The SPI will help you determine if you are ahead, behind, or on schedule. The CPI will not help here, as this  specifies if the project is over, under, or on budget. The BAC and EAC are both related to the budget, not  the schedule. 

Question 65: Correct 

Which one of the following is not a key component to you passing the PMP exam? Preparation 

  • Mindset
  • Dedication
  • All of the above are needed (Correct) 

Explanation 

You need preparation, which you have by finishing this course. Mindset – a positive mental attitude will  help you pass, not just take, the PMP exam. Dedication – commit to doing the work, like completing this  course, is a key asset in your quest to earn the PMP. Keep moving forward! 

Question 66: Incorrect 

You are managing your first virtual team. What will be the most helpful towards managing a diverse,  virtual team that works well together? 

  • Hosting a team building event at the start of a three-year-long project.
  • Mandating that the team attend every status check-in meeting.(Incorrect) 
  • Developing team ground rules with the project team.(Correct)
  • Have the entire team work overlapping hours.

Explanation 

Of these options, the most helpful tool for managing a virtual team is developing ground rules. Ground  rules, especially those developed by the team itself, serve to prevent conflicts in the team. Hosting a team  building event at the start of a project is a great idea. However, this will not sustain team cohesion over the  life of a long project. Additionally, mandating the team’s status check-in attendance and work hours may  seem helpful, however, this will not ensure that the team will work well together. 

Question 67: Incorrect 

Ralph is reviewing suggestions for ground rules with his project team. What suggested rule is  inappropriate as a team ground rule? 

  • The team will meet on Tuesday’s to distribute work items across team members. The team will share bi-weekly status updates with the project manager.
  • The team will award a $500 bonus every month to the team member who contributes the  most.(Correct)
  • The team will appoint a team member to direct contractors (Incorrect) 

Explanation 

It is not appropriate for the team to financially reward another team member. Not only is it unlikely that  the project team has the authority to provide a financial reward, but it is also likely that this would pose a  conflict of interest. All other options are appropriate suggestions as team ground rules. The team should  be able to distribute work across team members; it should be able to decide how and when to update the  project manager; and, the team should be able to direct contractors. 

Question 68: Correct 

Which of the following statements about ground rules is false? 

  • Ground rules will increase team productivity.
  • Ground rules will increase team satisfaction.
  • Ground rules are provided by the team’s project manager.(Correct)
  • Ground rules help to set expectations of team members.

Explanation

Ground rules are not provided by the team’s project manager. The ground rules should be created and  agreed upon by all team members. Ground rules help increase team productivity, satisfaction, and clarify  expectations of team members. 

Question 69: Incorrect 

Which of the following is not a benefit of mentorship? 

  • Over time, mentorship provides more authority to the mentee.(Correct) 
  • Mentorship improves the mentee’s competencies.
  • The mentee’s problem-solving ability is improved through mentorship.
  • The mentee gains greater communication skills through mentorship.(Incorrect) 

Explanation 

Mentorship is beneficial for many reasons, however, mentorship does not relate to authority. A mentee  cannot expect to gain more authority through a mentorship. A mentorship allows a mentee to gain  competencies, improve their communication skills and their problem-solving abilities. 

Question 70: Correct 

Katelyn wants to ensure that her team members receive appropriate mentorship. She approaches you  because she does not know how to begin the mentorship process. What would you tell her? 

  • Wait for a team member to approach you asking to be mentored.
  • Conduct 360-degree assessments of team members. (Correct) 
  • Register the project team to attend an industry conference.
  • Tell each project team members’ supervisor to continue training their reports.

Explanation 

The most effective first step in mentorship is to conduct a 360-degree assessment. This allows each  individual to assess their own strengths and weaknesses. Katelyn can then use this information to  determine where mentorship would be the most impactful. Katelyn should not wait for a team member to  approach her and ask for mentorship. Often, people are not aware of their weaknesses and would therefore  not know to ask for any mentorship. While industry conferences can be very enlightening, enrolling your  team members as conference attendees are not mentorship. Katelyn should not direct supervisors to  provide more training for multiple reasons. The supervisors may not act on Katelyn’s request or they may  not be able to provide training to team members. Additionally, it is important to understand the difference  between training and mentorship. Training usually results in a new skillset. Mentorship results in career  clarity and confidence. This question specifically mentions mentorship. 

Question 71: Correct 

Which of the following is an example of mentorship? 

  • John’s supervisor enrolls him in a course to learn a new programming language. Jose attends an industry-wide conference.
  • Brittany meets regularly with Beth to learn more about a career path in financial  planning.(Correct) 
  • Sarah has been hired as an intern by a well-renowned business consultant

Explanation 

Keep in mind that mentorship leads to career clarity and confidence. Therefore, the best example of  mentorship here is Brittany learning about the financial planning career path from Beth. John learning a  new programming language is an example of training, not mentorship. Training results in a new skillset.  Jose attending a conference will likely result in him learning about an industry, but is not personalized as  mentorship is. Sarah’s internship will likely result in new knowledge for her, but we cannot assume that she  will be mentored by the consultant who hired her. 

Question 72: Incorrect 

Your teammate, Dan, has expressed his interest in mentoring a junior developer. He asks you what the  most important element of a successful mentorship is. What would you tell him? 

  • A trusting relationship between the mentor and mentee is critical. (Correct) 
  • You must have technical expertise to ensure that your mentee will learn from you. Your mentee must be your direct report.
  • You must be able to commit several hours a week to mentorship. (Incorrect) 

Explanation 

The most important element to a successful mentorship is a trusting relationship between the mentor and  mentee. Mentorship is not restricted to a supervisor and direct report relationship. A mentorship can exist  between any individuals. Technical expertise is not a requirement of mentorship. A mentor can  demonstrate any kind of quality, for example, professionalism, that a mentee can learn. A mentorship is  not restricted to technical expertise. Mentorship does not have to require a great deal of time. Mentorship  should be organic and natural. It is not necessarily on a set schedule. 

Question 73: Correct 

Your PMO has tasked you with hiring a new project manager for the organization. They’ve asked that  you specifically find someone with mentorship experience. What core competency deals most with  mentorship? 

  • Industry-specific skills
  • General management (Correct)
  • Project management
  • Lengthy experience

Explanation 

Mentorship is encompassed by general management. While other competencies can include mentorship,  mentorship is a form of general management that is not constrained by an industry, project management,  nor years of experience. 

Question 74: Correct 

Which of the following elements does not relate to emotional intelligence? 

  • Communication
  • Observation
  • Authority (Correct) 
  • Interpersonal skills

Explanation 

Authority is not related to emotional intelligence. Emotional intelligence utilizes observation,  communication, and interpersonal skills to understand and manage emotions. 

Question 75: Incorrect 

Jennifer is an emotionally-intelligent team leader. Which of the following conflict resolution techniques  is she most likely to embody? 

  • Smoothing (Correct) 
  • Withdrawal
  • Forcing
  • Compromising(Incorrect) 

Explanation 

Emotionally intelligent leaders are more likely to use a smoothing conflict resolution technique. Smoothing  involves making some concessions but focuses on an agreement. Withdrawal, forcing, and compromising  all result in a “lose-lose” for those involved in the conflict. With smoothing, there is likely to be more  involvement by all parties and result in some form of agreement. 

Question 76: Incorrect 

Which of the following is not a direct result of emotional intelligence? 

  • Reduced tension within the team (Incorrect)
  • Increased cooperation within the team
  • Increased productivity within the team(Correct)
  • Increased trust within the team

Explanation 

Emotional intelligence does not directly result in increased productivity. Emotional intelligence results in  reduced tension, increased cooperation, and increased trust within the team. While productivity may  increase tangentially through emotional intelligence, it is not a direct result. 

Question 77: Incorrect 

Jason wants to improve his emotional intelligence while still reward the team for their hard work and  keep them on track to deliver the project on time. What is the best way Jason can reward his team? 

Promise his team a $500 bonus at the end of the project. 

Gather the team and individually thank each team member for their important contributions. (Correct) 

Let the supervisors of each team member know how well each team member is doing.(Incorrect) Reward the top 2 contributors of the team with an early dismissal on Friday. 

Explanation 

Jason should gather the team and individually thank each team member and stress the importance of their  contributions. This is a clear example of demonstrating emotional intelligence while praising and rewarding  the team. While the team may like a bonus at the end, this is not demonstrative of emotional intelligence.  The team’s supervisors should know about their good work, however, this is not emotional intelligence on  Jason’s part. Rewarding a subset of the team is rarely a good idea. This may cause conflict within the team  and derail the project. 

Question 78: Correct 

Your PMO would like to meet with you to discuss your project team. The PMO has noticed that your team  has the lowest staff turnover in the entire organization. What is likely to be the cause of this? 

  • Your team members earn higher salaries than others.
  • The work that your team is responsible for is easier than other teams’ work.
  • The leaders on your team are highly emotionally intelligent.(Correct)
  • Your team members get a bonus for each additional year they remain at the organization. Explanation

Explanation

Emotional intelligence leads to less staff turnover. Highly emotional team leaders will retain employees for  longer. Financial incentives like higher salaries and annual bonuses do not relate to a lack of turnover. The  difficulty of the work that a team does is not related to turnover. The difficulty of work is also subjective to  those doing the work. 

Question 79: Incorrect 

Jan is a humble introvert and a key performer for your team. She has recently delivered a critical software  bundle to a client on time and under budget. The client is extraordinarily impressed with her work. As  Jan’s project manager, how should you praise her work in an emotionally intelligent way? 

  • At the next team meeting, give Jan a round of applause. (Incorrect)
  • Give Jan a $100 bonus for completing the project under budget.
  • Have a private meeting with Jan where you thank her and express to her the importance of her  contributions.(Correct)
  • Mention Jan’s accomplishments in the employee newsletter.

Explanation 

While all of these options are nice ways to reward a high achiever, a project manager must be emotionally  intelligent enough to understand how certain team members prefer to be rewarded. Jan being a humble  introvert implies that she likely does not like public praise. Therefore, mentioning her in a public newsletter  or in front of the entire team may cause her to feel uncomfortable. Financial incentives are helpful, but  these are not emotionally intelligent rewards. Understanding that Jan may be shy, she should be praised  privately. A private discussion of her contributions is the most appropriate praise for Jan. 

Question 80: Correct 

Over lunch with your colleague, Bruce, the topic of iterative development arises. Bruce says that iterative  development is better than incremental development when a useable delivery is needed early on for a  project. Which of the following is true? 

  • Incremental development and iterative development mean the same thing and can be used  interchangeably.
  • Iterative development is planned in complete detail in the planning stage, while incremental  development plans at a high level and develops the scope more and more over time.
  • Incremental delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration.(Correct)
  • Iterative delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration.

Explanation 

Incremental delivery yields a useable piece of the project in each iteration. Incremental and iterative  development have similar, but not identical definitions and therefore cannot be used interchangeably.  Iterative development means that the project is built in successive levels, but it is not always useable in the  first few iterations. Neither iterative nor incremental development involves detailed planning in the initial  stages. Detailed planning is typical of waterfall development. 

Question 81: Correct 

The COO of your software development company has asked you to develop a rough prototype of a piece  of software to test a proof of concept for her team. Which development approach is best suited for this  project? 

  • Predictive development
  • Waterfall development
  • Incremental development (Correct) 
  • Hybrid development

Explanation 

The best development approach for this project would be an incremental development approach. This is  because the COO asked for a prototype to test a proof of concept. An incremental approach is best to  deliver a usable portion of a product after a small period of development. Predictive development, also  called waterfall development, is not suitable for this project because predictive/waterfall development  requires a great deal of planning and scoping upfront. This level of planning is not necessary when only the  testing of a proof of concept is needed. Hybrid development refers to a mix of incremental and predictive  development. This is not necessary for a project that is only to test a proof of concept. 

Question 82: Incorrect 

In a planning meeting, Jill asks “how can we lower the project cost and still achieve the same scope?”.  What kind of analysis is Jill conducting? 

  • Quality analysis
  • Value analysis (Correct)
  • Stakeholder analysis
  • Scope analysis (Incorrect) 

Explanation 

Jill is conducting a value analysis. Value analysis refers to trying to get the most scope for the least financial  spend. There is no reference to quality nor stakeholder analysis in this example. While this example does  refer to scope, the comparison between scope and cost is directly related to value.

Question 83: Incorrect 

Your organization has multiple ongoing projects, spreading your time and efforts very thin. You meet  with your PMO to ask where you should focus your time. Your PMO informs you that you should focus  your time on the project with the most value being to the organization. Which project should you focus  on?

  • The project with the highest SPI.
  • The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio.(Correct)
  • The project with the CPI of exactly 1.0.
  • The project with the lowest payback period. (Incorrect) 

Explanation 

The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio will deliver the most value to the organization. The project  with the SPI relates to schedule, not value. The project with the highest CPI relates to budget, not value.  The project with the lowest payback period indicates the quickest turnaround in recovering the investment  before making a profit. This is related to time, not value. 

Question 84: Incorrect 

Your PMO has sent you a project portfolio that contains 4 projects that have not yet been started. They  have asked that you manage the project that has the highest current value of future cash flows. Which  project will you select? 

  • The project with the highest present value (PV).
  • The project with the highest net present value (NPV). (Correct) 
  • The project with the highest internal rate of return (IRR). (Incorrect) 
  • The project with the highest benefit-cost ratio.

Explanation 

The current value of future cash flows is the net present value (NPV). Therefore, you should select the  project with the highest NPV. The project with the highest present value, PV, does not account for the value  of future cash flows, as the question states. The internal rate of return and the benefit-cost ratio have  nothing to do with the current value of future cash flows. 

Question 85: Incorrect 

You have been tasked with managing a project that must deliver value as quickly as possible. Your budget  and scope are relatively flexible, but you must deliver some sort of value by the end of the year. Which  development methodology are you least likely to use for this project? 

  • Iterative development (Incorrect) 
  • Incremental development
  • Predictive development (Correct) 
  • Hybrid development

Explanation

Because emphasis has been placed on delivering value early, the option that is least likely to be used is  predictive development. Predictive development focuses on early, meticulous planning and delivering  value much later than iterative, incremental, and hybrid development approaches. 

Question 86: Correct 

Brooke’s project team is well underway in the development of a complex technical project. A team  member informs Brooke that a functional manager is receiving the weekly status report, but not the  monthly progress report. He expressed that he must receive the monthly progress report. What should  Brooke do next? 

  • Brooke should update the communications management plan to include sending the monthly  progress report.(Correct) 
  • Brooke should send the monthly progress report to all stakeholders and team members.
  • Nothing; The stakeholder does not need to receive the monthly progress report because he is  receiving the weekly status report.
  • Brooke should note this in the issue log and send the monthly progress report to this stakeholder. 

Explanation 

Brooke should update the communications plan. Anytime a change to a communication method or  stakeholder is needed, the communications plan must be updated. Sending the monthly progress report to  all stakeholders and team members may not be necessary; therefore, this is not the best option. Brooke  ignoring the problem is never appropriate and not providing the manager with this information may be  detrimental to the project; therefore, doing nothing is not appropriate. Noting this in the issue log and then  sending the monthly progress report to the manager is not the best option because this change must be  reflected in the communications management plan.

Question 87: Correct 

You are meeting with Jessie, a project stakeholder with low interest and low influence. You need to  account for Jessie in the communications management plan, so you ask him how he would like to be  communicated with. He tells you that you can simply send him an instant message (IM) about project  developments. What type of communication is this? 

  • Formal written
  • Informal written (Correct) 
  • Formal verbal
  • Informal verbal

Explanation 

This is an example of informal written communication because communication is taking place over instant  messaging. Formal written requires an update to something formal like a project management plan, not an  IM. This is not verbal communication because it is not taking place face to face or over a phone. 

Question 88: Correct 

Rodger needs to ask his junior developer about the technical implementation of a low priority feature.  Rodger sees the junior developer at the water cooler in the office and decides to approach him for a quick  chat. What type of communication is this? 

  • Informal written
  • Formal written
  • Formal verbal
  • Informal verbal (Correct)

Explanation 

This is an example of informal verbal communication. Rodger is communicating face to face and it is not a  planned meeting, it was happenstance. This is not written communication because it is happening in person  and it is not formal communication because it is not planned. 

Question 89: Incorrect 

You’ve received feedback from your project team that it is difficult to find important policy  documentation. To address this, you decide to create a website for internal use that your team members  can log in to and access all documentation. What kind of communication method is this? 

  • Interactive communication (Incorrect) 
  • Push communication
  • Pull communication (Correct)
  • Verbal communication

Explanation 

This is an example of pull communication. Pull communication refers to a method where the sender puts  the information in a central location that the receivers must be responsible for accessing. This is not push  communication because the sender is not pushing the documentation out to the team, the team must  access it on their own accord. This is not an example of interactive feedback because there is no evidence  of communication going both from the Project Manager and from the team members. This is not verbal  communication because verbal communication is not a communication method, it is a kind of  communication itself. Additionally, there is no verbal communication in this example as the documentation  and website is written communication. 

Question 90: Correct 

You are having lunch with a student intern who is interested in learning about project management. She  asks you what she should gain expertise in to be a successful manager. What will you tell her? 

  • Management methodologies
  • Communication (Correct) 
  • Business strategy
  • Technical industry skills

Explanation 

As a Project Manager, communication expertise is key to being effective. While understanding  management methodologies, business strategy and technical industry skills are all beneficial, having these  skills would be meaningless without the ability to be an expert communicator.

Job Interview Preparation  (Soft Skills Questions & Answers)

🎥 Your FREE eLEARNING Courses (Click Here)

Flexible Class Options

  • Week End Classes For Professionals  SAT | SUN
  • Corporate Group Trainings Available
  • Online Classes – Live Virtual Class (L.V.C), Online Training

Popular Courses

Digital Banking Certificate Course

Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)

Lean Management – Lean Leadership and Culture Development

PRINCE2 Foundation Course

Agile and Scrum Master

ITIL 4 Foundation Training

Business Analysis Training (System Analyst)

 

[/vc_column_text]

KEY FEATURES

Flexible Classes Schedule

Online Classes for out of city / country students

Unlimited Learning - FREE Workshops

FREE Practice Exam

Internships Available

Free Course Recordings Videos

Register Now

[/vc_column][/vc_row]

Print Friendly, PDF & Email
Comments are closed.
ABOUT US

OMNI ACADEMY & CONSULTING is one of the most prestigious Training & Consulting firm, founded in 2010, under MHSG Consulting Group aim to help our customers in transforming their people and business - be more engage with customers through digital transformation. Helping People to Get Valuable Skills and Get Jobs.

Read More

Opportunities

Contact Us
Get your self enrolled for unlimited learning 1000+ Courses, Corporate Group Training, Instructor led Class-Room and ONLINE learning options. Join Now!
  • Head Office: A-2/3 Westland Trade Centre, Shahra-e-Faisal PECHS Karachi 75350 Pakistan Call 0213-455-6664 WhatsApp 0334-318-2845, 0336-7222-191, +92 312 2169325
  • Gulshan Branch: A-242, Sardar Ali Sabri Rd. Block-2, Gulshan-e-Iqbal, Karachi-75300, Call/WhatsApp 0213-498-6664, 0331-3929-217, 0334-1757-521, 0312-2169325
  • ONLINE INQUIRY: Call/WhatsApp +92 312 2169325, 0334-318-2845, Lahore 0333-3808376, Islamabad 0331-3929217, Saudi Arabia 050 2283468
  • DHA Branch: 14-C, Saher Commercial Area, Phase VII, Defence Housing Authority, Karachi-75500 Pakistan. 0213-5344600, 0337-7222-191, 0333-3808-376
  • info@omni-academy.com
  • FREE Support | WhatsApp/Chat/Call : +92 312 2169325
QUICK LINKS
WORKING HOURS
  • Monday10.00am - 7.00pm
  • Tuesday10.00am - 7.00pm
  • Wednesday10.00am - 7.00pm
  • Thursday10.00am - 7.00pm
  • FridayClosed
  • Saturday10.00am - 7.00pm
  • Sunday10.00am - 7.00pm
Terms and Conditions
©2024 - OMNI ACADEMY SHAHRA-E-FAISAL, PECHS Branch Call 0213-455-6664 WhatsApp 0334-318-2845, 0334-1757-521 Gulshan Branch Call: 0213-455-6664, 0213-498-6664, 0334-318-2845 DHA Branch Call: 02135344600 | 0336-7222-191 | 0337-7222-191 Islamabad Branch Call: 051-2746664 | 0333-3808376, 0335-7222191 inquiry@omni-academy.com Terms and Policy
Select your currency
PKR Pakistani rupee
USD United States (US) dollar
WhatsApp Us